UPSC PRELIMS 2023 – GS PAPER 1 – ANSWERS with SOLUTIONS
UPSC PRELIMS 2023 – GS PAPER 1 – ANSWERS with SOLUTIONS (Que 1 - Que 20)
Consider the following statements with reference to India:
A. According to the (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' investments are in those with plant and machinery between 15 crore and 25 crore.
B. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the following given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statement 1 is untrue (a) MSMED Micro Enterprise states that investments in machinery and plant cannot exceed 25 lakhs (25,00,000 Indian Rupees).
Small-scale industries: An investment in machinery and plant must be greater than 25 lakhs (25,00,000 Indian Rupees), but it cannot exceed 5 crores (5,00,00,000 Indian Rupees).
Medium-sized business: investment in plant and equipment must be more than 5 crores (10,00,000 Indian Rupees), but not more than 10 crores.
(a) According to an RBI circular from 2016, priority sector loans fall into eight major groups. The following are listed in order: (1) Agriculture (2) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (3) Export Credit (4) Education (5) Housing (6) Social Infrastructure (7) Renewable Energy (8) Others Consequently, all bank loans
2. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements. (current Affair)
1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER: OPTION (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: (1) Central bank digital currencies (CBDCs) are digital representations of fiat currencies issued and managed by central banks. Payments can be made using CBDCs instead of US dollars or the SWIFT network.
(2) Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) are digital representations of fiat money that central banks issue and manage.
3. In the context of finance the term ‘beta’ refers to
(a) The process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms.
(b) An investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward.
(c) A type of systematic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible.
(d) A numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market.
ANSWER: OPTION (d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market.
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Self – Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
2.In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
3.The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (b) Only two
Explanation:
5. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-l and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
ANSWER: OPTION (a)
Explanation: Statement 1 is true because the public healthcare system in India focuses primarily on curative care and offers little in the way of preventive, promotive, or rehabilitative care. This is because of a number of things, such as: insufficient funding and personnel to deliver comprehensive healthcare
The second statement is true.States are generally in charge of managing health care under the decentralised system used in India. However, several families seek treatment from private providers and pay out of pocket as a result of the severe staffing and supply shortages in government facilities.
Both Statements I and II are true, and Statement II provides the proper justification for Statement I.
6. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: According to the United Nations’ World Water Development Report 2022, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement-ll: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-ll are correct and Statement-ll is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-1 is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct
ANSWER: OPTION (c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
Explanation: India has a vast population, making it difficult to provide for their demands in terms of drinking water and sanitation. According to my knowledge, India will be the world's greatest user of groundwater in September 2021 and its rate of groundwater extraction is very considerable. An estimated 25% of the world's groundwater is taken out of the earth each year in India.
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (b) only two
Explanation: (a) Every state must be protected by the central government from external attack and internal unrest, per Article 355 of the Indian Constitution. This clause gives the central government the authority to act if it feels threatened by outside forces or encounters internal disturbance that it is unable to adequately address on its own. Consequently, the claim is not entirely false.
(b) In accordance with Article 22, everyone detained must be notified of the grounds for their arrest. Additionally, he cannot be denied the right to legal counsel. A person who has been arrested must appear before a magistrate within 24 hours after their arrest. Therefore, the assertion is true.
(c) A confession given to a police officer is admissible under Section 32 of the pOTA.
8. Which one of the following countries been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?
(a) Angola
(b) Costa Rica
(c) Ecuador
(d) Somalia
ANSWER: OPTION (d) Somalia
Explanation: In Somalia, a civil war has been raging since 2009. Conflict, high food prices, and starvation have disastrously combined to cause the drought in Somalia.
1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER: OPTION (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: (A) The maintenance of biological diversity. usage of its components sustainably and. Fair and equal distribution of gains from the use of genetic resources.
(b) The BMC's primary responsibility is to prepare the People's Biodiversity Register after consulting with locals. Comprehensive data on the availability of and understanding of local biological resources, their medical or other uses, shall be included in the record.
10. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (c) Only three
Explanation: (a) The Electoral College for presidential elections in India is made up of elected members of the higher and lower houses of Parliament, namely the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha, as well as elected members (MPs) of State and Union Territories Assemblies.
(b) The value of a Member of Parliament's vote in the election of the President is calculated by dividing the sum of the votes cast by all elected Members of Parliament from all States by the total number of Members of Parliament.
(c) Kerala received 152 votes, while Madhya Pradesh received 131.Thus, this claim is accurate.
(d) The value of a vote does not depend on the population-to-elective-seats ratio.
11. Consider the following countries:
1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five
ANSWER: OPTION (a) Only two
12. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.
(b) The Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of isolation.
(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
(d) Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.
ANSWER: OPTION (c)
Explanation: (a) Instead of 10 times that achieved at the poles, the separation acquired at the equator is often two to three times that gained there. One of the main causes of the temperature disparities between the equatorial and polar regions is this disparity in insolation.
(b) Only around two-thirds of the radiation is made up of infrared rays. The sun radiates energy over a wide range of wavelengths, but the majority of it is visible light rather than infrared.
(c) Water vapour absorbs a large portion of the infrared radiation released by the Earth's surface in the lower atmosphere, where water vapour concentrations are rather high. The greenhouse effect, which is a result of this absorption, helps to control the Earth's temperature.
13. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients
Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests causes dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
ANSWER: OPTION (d)
Explanation: (A) Tropical rain forests do not have nutrient-rich soils. The dead organic matter in the soil quickly decomposes and releases nutrients into the soil in tropical rainforests due to the high temperatures and humidity.
(b) The dead organic matter in the soil decomposes quickly in tropical rainforests due to the high temperatures and humidity. This assertion is true. Tropical rainforests offer the optimal environment for the quick decomposition of dead organic matter in the soil due to their high temperatures and humidity levels.
Therefore, choice d is right.
Statement-1: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statement- II: The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-ll are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I in incorrect but Statement-Il is correct
ANSWER: OPTION (a)
Explanation: (a) In the summer, there is a significant temperature differential between the water and the land.
Therefore, statement 1 is true.
(b) Compared to land surface, water has a higher specific heat capacity. In comparison to a comparable mass of land, water requires more heat energy to raise its temperature.
Therefore, assertion 2 is true.
And statement 2 is a valid justification for statement 1.
1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER: OPTION (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: (a) Because p waves move more quickly than S waves, they are detected earlier. When moving across a variety of mineral types, P waves move more quickly than S waves. The characteristics of the material affect how quickly seismic waves move across a surface.
(b) The rock vibrates in the direction of propagation during P or compressional waves. The first waves to leave an earthquake are P waves because they move the fastest. Rocks oscillate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation in S or shear waves.
Therefore, both claims are true.
16. With reference to coal based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements:
1.None of them uses sea water.
2.None of them is setup in water stressed district.
3.None of them is privately found.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(C) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (d) None
(a) Seawater is frequently used as a supply of raw water in coastal thermal power facilities. Seawater pipelines from the intake structures transport seawater to the facility. Both cooling water and DM water are made from seawater.
(b) The New World Resources Institute discovered that 40% of the nation's thermal power plants, which rely on water for cooling, are situated in locations with high water stress. Water scarcity is already affecting the production of electricity in these areas; between 2013 and 2016, 14 of India's 20 largest thermal utilities shut down at least one facility as a result of water shortages, at a cost to businesses of $1.4 billion.
(c) India has a total of 269 thermal power plants. There are 138 thermal power plants among them.
17. The Wolbachia Method is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?
(a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
(b) Converting crop residues into packing material
(c) Producing biodegradable plastics
(d) Producing biochar from thermo-chemical conversion of biomass
ANSWER: OPTION (a)
Explanation:
18. Consider the following activities:
1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated.
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (c) All three
Explanation: (a) Spreading fine basalt rock on farmland: Enhanced weathering is a technique that spreads fine basalt rock on farmland to hasten the atmospheric carbon dioxide absorption process naturally.
(b) Adding lime to saltwater makes it saltier, which improves the water's ability to absorb CO2 from the atmosphere and lessens its propensity to release it again. By incorporating lime into saltwater, scientists claim to have discovered an efficient method of lowering atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.
(c) Carbon capture and storage (CCS), a technique to stop significant amounts of CO2 from being released into the atmosphere, involves capturing carbon dioxide produced by various businesses and putting it into defunct underground mines in the form of carbonated water.
Three options for carbon capture and sequestration are taken into consideration and explored.
19. Aerial metagenomics best refers to which one of the following situations?
(a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
(b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
(c) Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples animals from moving
(d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies
ANSWER: OPTION (a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go.
Explanation: The term "Metagenomics" used to describe the process of gathering and analysing genetic material (DNA, RNA) from environmental samples using aircraft. Typically, when discussing "aerial" metagenomics, this refers to the process of taking these samples from the air in a particular habitat.
20. Microsatellite DNA is used in the case of which one of the following?
(a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
(b) Stimulating stem cells transform into diverse functional tissues
(c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population
ANSWER: OPTION (c)
Explanation:
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