UPSC PRELIMS 2023 – GS PAPER 1 – ANSWERS with SOLUTIONS (Que 61 - Que 80)

 

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UPSC PRELIMS 2023 – GS PAPER 1 – ANSWERS with SOLUTIONS (Que 61 - Que 80)

61. Consider the following statements:

Statement-l: Interest, income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.

Statement-ll: (InviTs) are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets, and Enforcement of Security Interest Act. 2002

 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1.

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

 

ANSWER: OPTION (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect. Interest income distributed to its investors from deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) is taxable. Dividends are also taxable.

Statement 2 is correct. An Act to regulate the securitization and reconstruction of financial assets and to enforce security interests and to provide a central database of security interests created over property rights and for matters relating thereto or connected there with.

 

62. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1:

In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.

Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

 

ANSWER: OPTION (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Several central banks, including the US Federal Reserve, the Bank of England and the European Central Bank, have raised interest rates to combat rising inflation.

Statement 2 is correct. Central banks generally assume that they have the ability to counter rising consumer prices through monetary policy. That's because they can raise interest rates, making it more expensive for businesses to borrow and invest money.

 

63. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1:

Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.

Statement-II:

Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

 

ANSWER: OPTION (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change because they can help reduce greenhouse gas emissions. A secondary benefit is that the carbon market transfers resources from the private sector to the state.

Statement 2 is correct. Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the state. Because businesses that emit greenhouse gases are required to buy carbon credits, which are then sold to the state

 

64. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of sterilization?

(a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’

(b) Oversight of settlement and payment systems

(c) Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments

(d) Regulating the functions of Non- banking Financial Institutions

 

ANSWER: OPTION (a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’

Explanation: In India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducts Open Market Operations (OMOs) to neutralize the effect of capital inflows. OMO involves the buying and selling of government securities in the open market.

 

65. Consider the following markets:

1. Government Bond Market.

2. Call Money Market

3.Treasury Bill Market

4. Stock Market

How many of the above are included in capital markets?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

 

ANSWER: OPTION (b) only two

Explanation: Government bond market and stock market are related to capital market.

 

 

66. Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field?

(a) Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce

(b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations

(c) Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers

(d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production.

 

ANSWER: OPTION (b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations.

 

67. Consider the following statements:

1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.

2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.

3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

 

ANSWER: OPTION (c) All three

(1) Option 1 is correct. The minimum support price (MSP) is the government's purchase of crops from farmers. It is determined by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), an advisory body to the government. The MSP for niger seeds is Rs. 5,230 per quintal for the 2022-23 crop year.

(2) Option 2 is correct. In India, Niger is grown on an area of   2.61 lakh hectares, mainly during the Kharif season. However, it is a Rabi crop in Odisha. Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and West Bengal are the states where Niger is cultivated. Average yield in India is 3.21 quintal/ha.

(3) Option 3 is correct. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. Niger seed oil is a good source of polyunsaturated fatty acids, which are beneficial for health. It is a good source of vitamin E.

 

68. Consider the investments in the following assets:

1. Brand recognition

2. Inventory

3. Intellectual property

4. Mailing list of clients

How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

 

ANSWER: OPTION (c) Only three

Explanation: Intangible investments are investments in assets that do not have a physical form. This includes things like brand recognition, intellectual property and client mailing lists. Inventory is a tangible asset, because it is a physical object that can be seen and touched

 

69. Consider the following:

1. Demographic performance

2. Forest and ecology

3. Governance reforms

4. Stable government

5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) All five

 

ANSWER: OPTION (b) only three

Explanation: The 15th Finance Commission of India used several criteria for horizontal tax distribution. These criteria include population (1971 and 2011 data), area, forest and ecology, tax and fiscal effort and demographic performance.

 

70. Consider the following infrastructure sectors:

1. Affordable housing

2. Mass rapid transport

3. Health care

4. Renewable energy

On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

 

ANSWER: OPTION (d) All four

Explanation: The S3i initiative was launched in 2018 with the aim of mobilizing private sector investment in sustainable infrastructure projects in developing countries. The initiative focuses on four key areas: affordable housing, mass rapid transit, healthcare and renewable energy.

 

71. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.

Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-11 are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect Statement-II is correct

 

ANSWER: OPTION (c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Conventional (thermal, nuclear and hydro) and renewable (wind, solar, biomass etc.) energy sources are used for power generation in India. However, the majority of electricity is produced by coal-fired thermal power plants, which provide about 58% of the total electricity.

Statement 2 is incorrect. India is the ninth largest uranium producer in the world with production of 617 tones in 2022, a growth of 0.26% in 2021. Enriched uranium is an important element for both civilian nuclear power generation and military nuclear weapons. The International Atomic Energy Agency seeks to monitor and control enriched uranium supplies and processes in an effort to ensure the safety of nuclear power generation and prevent the proliferation of nuclear weapons.

 

72. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.

Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-ll are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct

 

ANSWER: OPTION (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Explanation: (1) Statement 1 is correct. There are about 270 marsupial mammals left in the world today and they can be found in Australia, Papua New Guinea and South America. These marsupials do not occur naturally in India. Examples of marsupials are kangaroos, wallabies, wombats, opossums, bandicoots and koalas.

(2) Statement 2 is incorrect. Marsupials can grow in a variety of habitats, including forests, grasslands, and deserts. They can also live in areas with predators.

 

73. Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature

(b) The United Nations Environment Programme

(c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development

(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

 

ANSWER: OPTION (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature

Explanation: ISSG is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species organized under the authority of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

 

74. Consider the following fauna:

1. Lion-tailed Macaque

2. Malabar Civet

3. Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

 

ANSWER: OPTION (b) only two

Explanation: Lion-tailed macaques are diurnal, meaning they are most active during the day. Malabar civets are nocturnal, meaning they are most active at night.

 

75. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

(a) Butterflies

(b) Dragonflies

(c) Honeybees

(d) Wasps

 

ANSWER: OPTION (c) Honeybees

 

76. Consider the following statements:

1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties

2. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties

3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.

4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two.

(c) Only three

(d) All four

 

ANSWER: OPTION (d) All four

Explanation: (1) Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. Mushrooms act as antibacterial, immune boosting and cholesterol lowering agents; In addition, they are important sources of bioactive compounds. As a result of these properties, some mushroom extracts are used to promote human health and are found as dietary supplements.

(2) Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties. Magic mushrooms (also called shum or mushrooms) are a type of mushroom that contain the drug psilocybin or psilocin. These drugs cause hallucinations. Psilocybin powder can also come in capsule form. You can eat mushrooms fresh or dried. Powdered psilocybin can be snorted or injected.

(3) Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. Medicinal mushrooms represent a beneficial natural source of biologically active compounds with fungicidal, herbicidal and insecticidal properties. Certain mushrooms have insecticidal properties. Example, oyster mushrooms contain the compound pleuromutilin, which is toxic to insects. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. Example, jack-o'-lantern mushrooms contain the compound luciferin, which emits light when it reacts with oxygen.

(4) Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. Fungi glow due to a natural reaction between enzymes and chemicals called luciferins, along with a type called caffeic acid found in all plants. Incorporating four key fungal genes into the plants' DNA made them glow 10 times brighter than those engineered using bacteria.

77. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:

1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.

2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.

3. They are omnivorous.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

 

ANSWER: OPTION (b) only two

(1) Statement 1 is incorrect. Indian squirrels build nests in trees.

(2) Statement 2 is incorrect. Squirrels have a behavior known as "caching" where they store food items such as nuts and seeds. Some species, such as the eastern gray squirrel, store food in the ground. However, not all Indian squirrels exhibit this behavior.

(3) Squirrels are omnivores (they eat both plants and animals). Among their favorite foods: acorns, seeds, nuts, berries, tree buds, insects, bird eggs and amphibians.

 

 

78. Consider the following statements:

1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.

2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.

3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

 

ANSWER: OPTION (c) All three

Explanation: (1) Thermophiles are microorganisms that can grow in high-temperature environments. Some thermophiles can grow up to 113°C (235°F).

(2) Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperatures below the freezing point of water. For example, the bacterium Psychrobacter cryohalolantis can grow at -15 °C (5 °F).

(3) Acidophiles are microorganisms that exhibit optimal growth in highly acidic environments. These are of two types. Extreme acidophile live in environments with a pH value <3, and moderate acidophiles grow best in conditions with a pH value between 3 and 5.

 

 

79. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

(a) Fishing cat

(b) Orangutan

(c) Otter

(d) Sloth bear

 

ANSWER: OPTION (b) Orangutan

Explanation: An orangutan is an animal that makes a stick tool to extract worms from holes in trees or wood. Orangutans have been observed using sticks as tools to extract insects from holes in trees or logs.

 

80. Consider the following:

1. Aerosols

2. Foam agents

3. Fire retardants

4. Lubricants

In the making of how many of the above are hydro fluorocarbons used?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

 

ANSWER: OPTION (c) Only three

Explanation: Hydro fluorocarbons (HFCs) are greenhouse gases (GHG) commonly used by federal agencies in a variety of applications, including refrigeration, air conditioning (AC), building insulation, fire suppression systems, and aerosols.

UPSC PRELIMS 2023 – GS PAPER 1 – ANSWERS with SOLUTIONS (Que 81 - Que 100)