UPSC PRELIMS 2023 – GS PAPER 1 – ANSWERS with SOLUTIONS (Que 81 - Que 100)
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UPSC PRELIMS 2023 – GS PAPER 1 – ANSWERS with SOLUTIONS (Que 81 - Que 100)
81. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka,
which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas,
located?
(a) Andhra
(b) Gandhara
(c) Kalinga
(d) Magadha
ANSWER: OPTION (a) Andhra
Explanation: Dhanykataka was in Andhra Pradesh. It flourished
as a major Buddhist center. The Mahasanghika, a major early Buddhist school,
was associated with Dhanykataka.
82. With reference to ancient India, consider the following
statements:
1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics
3. Stupa was a votive commemorative structure Buddhist
tradition.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (c) All three
Explanation: (1) In the simplest terms, a stupa is a
stone-faced earth burial mound. In Buddhism, the earliest stupas contained
portions of the Buddha's ashes, and as a result, stupas came to be associated
with the Buddha's body. By adding the Buddha's ashes to the pile of clay, it
became activated with Buddha's energy.
(2) Monumental stupas (Tibetan: chorten) are the oldest
symbols of Buddhism and have become symbols of the religion and of the Buddha
himself. Repositories of the Buddha, his disciples, and his lineage, they
assumed a central place in later Buddhist iconography.
(3) Stupas were built by Buddhist devotees as a form of
religious devotion and to commemorate important events, teachings or
individuals associated with Buddhism.
83. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar
and Muchiri were well known as
(a) Capital cities
(b) Ports
(c) Centres of iron-and-steel making
(d) Shrines of Jain Tirthankaras
ANSWER: OPTION (b) Ports. Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were
well-known ports in ancient South India. These cities played an important role
in maritime trade and commerce during that period.
84. Which one of the following explains the practice of
Vattakirutal as mentioned in Sangam poems?
(a) Kings employing women bodyguards
(b) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss
religious and philosophical matters
(c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and
driving away birds and animals
(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by
starving himself to death
ANSWER: OPTION (d) a king defeated in a battle committing
ritual suicide by starving himself to death.
85. Consider the following dynasties:
1. Hoysala
2. Gahadavala
3. Kakatiya
4. Yadava
How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms
in early eighth century AD?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (d) None. No dynasty established its kingdom
before the beginning of the eighth century AD.
Explanation: (1) The Hoysala Empire was a Kannadiga power originating
in the Indian subcontinent that ruled most of present-day Karnataka between the
10th and 14th centuries.
(2) The Gahadwala dynasty was one of several ruling
dynasties in northern India on the eve of the Muslim conquests in the 12th-13th
centuries.
(3) The Kakatiya dynasty was a Telugu dynasty that ruled the
eastern Deccan region of present-day India between the 12th and 14th centuries.
(4) Yadava dynasty, 12th-14th century rulers of the Hindu
kingdom of Central India in what is now the state of Maharashtra.
86. With reference to ancient
Indian History, consider the following pairs:
Literary work
Author
1. Devichandragupta: Bilhana
2. Hammira-Mahakavya: Nayachandra Suri
3. Milinda-panha : Nagarjuna
4. Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
ANSWER: OPTION (b) only two. Option 2 and 4 are correct.
Explanation: (1) Visakhadatta was a famous Sanskrit scholar
and dramatist after Kalidasa. He wrote two famous plays Mudrarakshas and
Devichandraguptam.
(2) Hamira Mahakavya is a 15th century Indian Sanskrit epic
written by Jain scholar Nayachandra Suri.
(3) The Milindapanho is a Buddhist text dated between 100 BC
and 200 AD. It purports to record a dialogue between the Indian Buddhist sage
Nagasena and the Indo-Greek king Menander of Bactria, who ruled in the second
century BCE.
(4) Somdev Suri wrote Nitivakyamrutam ("Nectar of the
Science of polity).
87. “Souls are not only the property of animal and plant
life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not
looked on as living by other religious sects.”
The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of
which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Shaivism
(d) Vaishnavism
ANSWER: OPTION (b) Jainism
Explanation: Jainism is an ancient Indian religion that
teaches that the path to liberation and happiness is to live a life of
harmlessness and renunciation.
88. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire
constructed large dam across Tungabhadra River and canal-cum-aqueduct several
kilometres long from the river to the capital city?
(a) Devaraya I
(b) Mallikarjuna
(c) Vira Vijaya
(d) Virupaksha
ANSWER: OPTION (a) Devaraya I
89. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat
surrendered Diu to Portuguese?
(a) Ahmad Shah
(b) Mahmud Begarha
(c) Bahadur Shah
(d) Muhammad Shah
ANSWER: OPTION (c) Bahadur Shah
Explanation: Sultan Bahadur Shah of Gujarat, who was
threatened by the Mughal Emperor Humayun, made a pact with the Portuguese and
gave them Diu in return for Portuguese help against the Mughals and protection
in the event of the fall of the kingdom.
90. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor
General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?
(a) The Regulating Act
(b) The Pitt’s India Act
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
(d) The Charter Act of 1833
ANSWER: OPTION (d) the Charter Act of 1833.
Explanation: The
Charter Act of 1833 dealt with internal challenges in India and the political
situation in England. In it, the post of Governor-General of Bengal was renamed
as Governor-General of India.
91. In essence, what does Due Process of Law’ mean?
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law
ANSWER: OPTION (c) Fair application of law
Explanation: Due process of law. It implies that a law duly
enacted by the Legislature or the body concerned is valid if the procedure for
establishing the law is properly followed. Due process of law checks that the
law applied is fair and not arbitrary.
92. Consider the following statements:
Statement-1: In India, prisons are managed by State
Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day
administration of prisons.
Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons
Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of
Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
ANSWER: OPTION (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Explanation: (1) The Prisons Act, 1894 is the main law
governing prisons in India. This act empowers state governments to manage
prisons. State governments have their own rules and regulations for the
day-to-day administration of prisons. These rules and regulations are made
under the Prisons Act, 1894.
(2) The management and administration of prisons falls
exclusively under the purview of the State Governments and is governed by the
Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prison Regulations of the respective State
Governments.
93. Which one of the following statements best reflects the
Chief purpose of the
‘Constitution’ of a country?
(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary
laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a
government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social
security.
ANSWER: OPTION (c) It defines and limits the powers of
government.
Explanation: The main purpose of the constitution is to
define and limit the powers of the government. This is important because it
prevents the government from becoming too powerful and violating the rights of
citizens.
94. In India, which one of the following Constitutional
Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial
interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) 1st Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment
ANSWER: OPTION (b) 42nd Amendment
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 was considered
to be the constitutional amendment in India to overcome judicial interpretations
of fundamental rights. Parliament was given unrestricted power to amend any
part of the constitution without judicial review.
95. Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India:
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above constitutional bodies?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
ANSWER: OPTION (a) Only one
Explanation:
Constitutional Institutions
(1) Election Commission of India.
(2) Autonomy of State Election Commission.
(3) There is a need to establish a State Finance Commission.
(4) Constitutional status for National Commission for
Backward Classes.
(5) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)
(6) Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
(7) Attorney General of India.
96. Consider the following statements:
1. If the election of the President of India is declared
void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance
of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become
invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be
postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved
and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the
Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her
assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (d) None
Explanation: (1) The election has been declared void. The
result is set aside and a writ is issued for fresh election. The election is
deemed invalid: the original return is canceled and another candidate is
declared elected.
(2) No. Only elected members of both Houses of Parliament
and State Assemblies are members of the Electoral College for Presidential
elections,
(3) In case of such bills, the President must give his
assent. He cannot refund or cash the bill (like normal bills). Thereafter, the
Bill becomes the Constitution Amendment Act and the Constitution is amended in
accordance with the terms of the Act.
97. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the
Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya
Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya
Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting
becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (a) only 1
Explanation: (1) Statement 1 is incorrect. Once the Lok
Sabha sends the money bill to the Rajya Sabha, the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or
reject the bill. He can only recommend. The Rajya Sabha must return the bill to
the Lok Sabha within 14 days, and if it fails to do so, the bill is deemed to
have been passed by both houses.
(2) Statement 2 is incorrect. It cannot reject or amend a
money bill after it has been passed by the Lok Sabha and sent to the Rajya
Sabha. The bill has to be returned within 14 days with or without
recommendation.
(3) Statement 3 is correct. The provision of joint sitting
is applicable only to General Bills or Finance Bills and not to Money Bills or
Constitutional Amendment Bills. In the case of money bills, the Lok Sabha has
overriding powers, while each house must pass the amendment bill separately.
98. Consider the following statements:
Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community
Reserve’
1. The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the
governing authority of such forest
2. Hunting is not allowed in such area
3. People of such area are allowed to collect non-timber
forest produce
4. People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural
practices
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
ANSWER: OPTION (c) Only three
Explanation: (1) Statement 1 is correct: According to
Section 33 of the Wildlife Protection Act (WLPA), when an area is declared as a
Community Reserve by the Central Government, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the
State controls it. His or her approval is mandatory for any decision related to
the area.
(2) Statement 2 is correct: After a forest is made a
community reserve, people are not allowed to hunt there, so hunting in
community reserves is prohibited.
(3) Statement 2 is correct. Such areas are designated as
conservation areas if they are uninhabited and wholly owned by the Government
of India but if part of the land is privately owned to be used for the
livelihood of communities and community areas. Thus, people in such areas are
allowed to collect non-timber forest produce.
(4) Statement 4 is incorrect. After a forest is made a
community reserve, people cannot hunt there or use it for agriculture, let
alone plantations.
99. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider
the following
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled
Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled
Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required
to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of
Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (b) only two
Explanation: (1) Statement 1 is correct. Notification of an
area as a scheduled area in a state is done by a presidential order. The
President has the power to declare certain areas as Scheduled Areas based on
the criteria laid down in the Constitution.
(2) Statement 2 is correct. In scheduled areas,
administrative units are organized from the district level to clusters of
villages in blocks. A district is the largest administrative unit, and within a
district, there are smaller administrative units such as cluster of village and
blocks.
(3) Statement 3 is incorrect. The Governor of the respective
state is responsible for submitting the annual report to the President of
India, not the Chief Minister.
100. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some
judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the
Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of
efficiency of administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India
defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-l
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II
is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
ANSWER: OPTION (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
Explanation: (1) Statement 1 is correct. The debate on
reservation in India has mainly focused on Article 16(4), which allows states
to reserve posts in appointments and promotions in public services for the
benefit of backward classes of citizens who, in the opinion of the state, are
under-represented. Services include. The Supreme Court of India has held in
some judgments that the reservation policy under Article 16(4) of the
Constitution of India shall be limited by Article 335 to maintain the
efficiency of administration.
(2) Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 335 of the Constitution
of India does not administer a particular definition of 'Efficiency of
Administration'. Article 335 The claims of members of Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes shall be considered in appointment to services and posts
relating to the Union or its functioning, including monitoring the efficiency
of administration.
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