UPSC PRELIMS 2023 – GS PAPER 1 – ANSWERS with SOLUTIONS (Que 21 - Que 40)
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UPSC PRELIMS 2023 – GS PAPER 1 – ANSWERS with SOLUTIONS (Que 21 - Que 40)
21. With reference to the Indian history Alexander Rea, A. H
Longhurst, Robert sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with
(a) Archaeological excavation
(b) Etablishment of English press in colonial India
(c) Establishment of churches in princely states
(d) Construction of Railways in colonial India
ANSWER: OPTION (a) archaeological excavation
Explanation: Archaeological excavation is the process by
which archaeologists interpret, recover, and record cultural and biological
remains found in the ground. Past activities leave traces in the form of house
foundations, graves, artifacts, bones, seeds, and countless other signs of human
experience.
22. Consider the following pairs
Site well known for
1. Besnagar: Shaivite cave shrine
2. Bhaja: Buddhist cave shrine
3. Sittanavasal: Jain cave Shrine
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) only one
(b) only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (b) Option b and c
are correct pair
Explanation: (a) Khamba is
worshiped by the locals as "Khamba Baba" and hence Besnagar is famous for the Vaishnava sect and not for the
Shaivite sect and A Shaivaite cave
has been discovered in the capsule area of Dharbandora Sakorda village in
South Goa.
(b) Bhaja Caves are the best
examples of Buddhist cave building in India. They are located in the
mountainous village of Bhaja, near Lonavala, Mumbai, in the Pune area.
(c) Sittanavasal Cave, also known
as Arivar Kovil, is a 7th century Jain monastery, small in size, excavated on
the western slope of the hill in its centre. It is famous for its paintings
painted in the fresco-secco technique with many mineral colors.
23. Consider the following statements
Statement-I
7th August is declared as the National Handloom day
Statement-II
lt was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on
the same day
Which one of the following is correct in respect to the
above statement
(a) Both statement l and statement ll are correct and
statement ll is the correct explanation of statement l
(b) Both statement l and statement ll are correct and
statement ll is not the correct explanation of statement l
(c) Streatment l is correct but statement ll is incorrect
(d) statement is l incorrect but statement ll is correct
ANSWER: OPTION (a) Both statement l and statement ll are
correct and statement ll is the correct explanation of statement l
Explanation: The handloom sector is a symbol of our
country's rich and diverse cultural heritage and an important means of
livelihood in rural and semi-rural areas of our country. With more than 70% of
all weavers and allied workers being women, this is a sector that directly
addresses women's empowerment.
24. Consider the following statements in respect of the
National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement-I:
One of the standard sizes the National Flag of India of 600
mm x 400 mm
Statement-II :
The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag
shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-il are correct and
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-l
(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
ANSWER: OPTION (d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II
is correct
Explanation: Standard sizes of Indian National Flag are 6300
x 4200, 3600 x 2400, 2700 x 1800, 1800 x 1200, 1350 x 900, 900 x 600, 450 x
300, x501 x 5012 and x5012 mm (all sizes in mm). 600 mm x 400 mm is not listed
as a standard size.
The National Flag of India shall be hand-cut and hand-woven
wool/cotton/silk khadi bunting. 1.3 The shape of the national flag should be
rectangular. The ratio of length to height (width) of the flag should be 3:2.
25. Consider the following statements respect of the
Constitution Day:
Statement-1: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th
November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-ll: On 26th November 1949 the the Constituent
Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under Chairmanship of Dr. B. R.
Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
above statements?
(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-11 is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-11 is correct
ANSWER: OPTION (c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is
incorrect
(1) The Constitution of India is important because it lays
down the supreme law of the land. It enshrines the fundamental rights and
duties of citizens and determines the political code, structure, powers and
duties of all government institutions.
(2) On 26th November 1947 the the Constituent Assembly of
India set up a Drafting Committee under Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to
prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
26. Consider the following statements
Statement l: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of
gold in terms of value.
Statement ll: Switzerland has the second largest gold
reserve in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
above statement
(a) Both statement l and statement ll are correct and
statement ll is the correct explanation of statement l
(b) Both statement l and statement ll are correct and
statement ll is not the correct explanation of statement l
(c) Statement l is correct but statement ll is incorrect
(d) statement is l incorrect but statement ll is correct
ANSWER: OPTION (c) Statement l is correct but statement ll
is incorrect
Explanation: Switzerland is indeed one of the leading
exporters of gold in terms of value. Switzerland has several large gold
refineries and a large amount of the world's gold is refined there.
Switzerland has seventh largest gold reserve in the world
not second. The top three countries with the largest gold reserves in the world
are United States of America (USA) followed by Germany, Italy.
27. Consider the following statement
Statement l:
Recently the United States of America and European Union have
launched the trade and Technology Council.
Statement ll:
The USA and the EU claims that truth this they are trying to
bring Technology progress and physical productivity under their control which
one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both statement l and statement ll are correct and
statement ll is the correct explanation of statement l
(b) Both statement l and statement ll are correct and
statement ll is not the correct explanation of statement l
(c) Statement l is correct but statement ll is incorrect
(d) Statement is l incorrect but statement ll is correct
ANSWER: OPTION (c) Statement l is correct but statement ll
is incorrect
Explanation: The EU-US Trade and Technology Council serves
as a forum for the United States and the European Union to coordinate on
important global trade, economic and technology issues and to deepen
transatlantic trade and economic relations based on these shared values.
.
28. Consider the following statements
Statement l:
India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
statement ll:
Many local companies and some foreign companies take
advantages of India’s production linked incentive scheme.
which one of the following is correct in respect of the
above statements?
(a) Both statement l and statement ll are correct and
statement ll is the correct explanation of statement l
(b) Both statement l and statement ll are correct and
statement ll is not the correct explanation of statement l
(c) Statement l is correct but statement ll is incorrect
(d) statement is l incorrect but statement ll is correct
ANSWER: OPTION (d) statement is l incorrect but statement ll
is correct
Explanation: (1) (Economic Survey 2022-23) India accounts
for 1.8% of world exports of goods and 4% of world exports of services. Thus,
India accounts for 3.2% if world exports of goods are not correct.
(2) The PLI scheme, commonly abbreviated as the Production
Linked Incentive Scheme, is an initiative launched by the Government of India
to encourage not only foreign companies to locate workers in the country and
thereby create employment, but also to produce domestically and locallyMicro
jobs are also encouraged.
29. Consider the following statements the stability and
growth pact of the European Union is a Treaty that
1. Limits the level of the budget red deficit of the
countries of the European Union
2. Makes the countries of the European Union to share their
infrastructure facilities
3. Enables the countries of the European Union to share
their Technology
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) only one
(b) only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (b) Statement 1 is incorrect and 2 and 3 are
correct
Explanation: (1)The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a set
of rules designed to ensure that countries in the European Union maintain sound
public finances and coordinate their fiscal policies. The sGP sets two strict
limits on EU member states: state budget deficits cannot exceed 3% of GDP and
national debt cannot exceed 60% of GDP.
The 'Stability and
Growth Pact' of the European Union is a treaty that
Limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries
of the European Union.
Makes the countries of the European Union to share their
infrastructure facilities.
Enables the countries of the European Union to share their
technologies.
30. Consider the following statements:
1. Recently, all the countries) of the United Nations have
adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the Global Compact
for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are
binding on the UN member countries.
3 The GCM addresses internal migration or internally
displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (a) only one
Explanation: (1) The Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and
Regular Migration (GCM) was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on
19 December 2018. However, not all UN member states have adopted the GCM. As of
February 2023, 152 countries have adopted the GCM. Statement 1 is incorrect.
(2) The goals and commitments set out in the GCM are not
binding on UN member states. The GCM is a non-binding agreement that provides a
framework for cooperation on migration. The GCM does not address internal
migration or internally displaced people. So statement 2 is incorrect.
(3) The GCM includes 23 goals to better manage migration at
local, national, regional and global levels. It aims to reduce adverse drivers
and structural factors that hinder people from building and maintaining
sustainable livelihoods in their countries of origin. Statement 3 is correct.
31. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani
Suraksha Yojana:
1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health
Departments.
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal
mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor
pregnant women.
4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities
to sick infants up to one year of age.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
ANSWER: OPTION (d) All four
Explanation: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe
motherhood intervention under the National Health Mission. It is being
implemented with the aim of reducing maternal and neonatal mortality by
promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Launched by Hon'ble
Prime Minister on 12th April 2005, the scheme is being implemented in all
States and Union Territories (UTs) with special focus on Low Performing States
(LPS).
32. Consider the following statements in the context of
interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:
1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for
pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
2.It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time
of child- birth.
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and
adolescents.
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic
pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
ANSWER: OPTION (d)
Explanation: The 6x6x6 strategy under aMB suggests six age
groups, six interventions and six institutional mechanisms. The strategy
focuses on ensuring robust monitoring of the supply chain, demand generation
and use of dashboards to address anemia due to both nutritional and
non-nutritional causes.
33. Consider the following statements :
1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components
used in automobiles and aircrafts.
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER: OPTION (a) 1 only
Explanation: (1) Carbon fiber-reinforced composite materials
are used in aircraft and spacecraft parts, racing car bodies, golf club shafts,
bicycle frames, fishing rods, automobile springs, sailboat masts, and many
other components that require light weight and high strength.
(2) Statement 2 is
incorrect because Carbon fiber (and carbon fiber composites) can be recycled
using mechanical, thermal or chemical methods.
34. Consider the following actions:
1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the
deployment of airbags almost instantaneously.
2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the
ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive.
3.Detection of the tilt of the smart- phone which results in
the rotationof display between portrait and landscape mode.
In how many of the above actions is the function of
accelerometer required?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (c) All three
Explanation: (1) Any reliable car crash detection system
requires an accelerometer that can measure several hundred g-force
accelerations. Accelerometers are used
in cars as an industrial method of detecting car crashes and deploying airbags
almost instantaneously.
(2) In the event of a laptop fall, an accelerator is used to
detect sudden changes in motion and shut down the hard drive immediately to
prevent data loss.
(3) To detect the orientation of the phone, the
accelerometer interacts with the gyroscope and magnetometer. So, when the phone
rotates, the accelerometer detects the change in acceleration and then
communicates with the gyroscope.
35. With reference to the role of biofilters in
Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements:
1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten
fish feed.
2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to
nitrate.
3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in
water.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (b) only two
Explanation: Role of Biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture
System: Recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) are unique engineered
ecosystems that reduce environmental disturbance by reducing nutrient
pollution. RAS typically use biofilters to control ammonia levels as a
byproduct of fish protein catabolism.
So statement 2 and 3 are correct.
36. Consider the following pairs:
Objects in space: Description
1. Cephids: Giant clouds of dust and gas in space.
2. Nebulae: Stars which brighten and dim periodically
3. Pulsars: Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars
run out of fuel and collapse.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (a) Only one
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Cepheids are not
giant clouds of dust and gas in space. Cepheids are a type of variable star
that periodically brighten and dim due to pulsations in their outer layers.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Nebulae are giant clouds of space
dust, hydrogen, helium, and other gases.
Statement 3 is correct. . Pulsars: Neutron stars that are
formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse.
37. Which one of the following countries has its own
Satellite Navigation System?
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Israel
(d) Japan
ANSWER: OPTION (d) Japan
Explanation: Satellite positioning systems use satellite
signals to calculate location information. A famous example is the American
Global Positioning System (GPS); QZSS is sometimes called "Japanese GPS.
38. Consider the following statements:
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds
throughout their flights, while (cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the
initial phase of flight.
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while
BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER: OPTION (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Cruise missiles are
jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while ballistic
missiles are rocket-propelled only during the initial (boost) phase of flight,
after which they follow a trajectory towards the target.
Statement 2 is incorrect. BrahMos is a short-range
supersonic cruise missile. The Agni missile is a family of medium to
intercontinental range ballistic missiles developed by India. Agni missiles are
long-range, nuclear-capable, surface-to-surface missiles.
39. Consider the following statements regarding mercury
pollution :
1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in
the world.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
3. There is (no known safe level of)
exposure to mercury.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (b) Only two
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Burning of gold-mercury
mixture releases huge amount of mercury into the atmosphere. Artisanal gold
mining currently accounts for more than 35 percent of all global mercury
emissions, more than any other industrial activity.
Statement 2 is correct. Mercury emitted from the smokestacks
of coal-fired power plants can fall into the atmosphere with rain, fog, or
chemical reactions. Several studies have shown high levels of mercury in soil
and vegetation near power plants, with most mercury occurring within about 9
miles (15 kilometers) of smokestacks.
Statement 3 is correct. Acute or chronic mercury exposure
can cause adverse effects at any developmental stage. Mercury is a highly toxic
element; No safe level of exposure is known.
40. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following
statements:
1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal
combustion.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for
heat or power generation.
3.It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER: OPTION (c) All three
Explanation: (1) all three statements are correct. Internal
Combustion: Green hydrogen can be used directly as fuel for internal combustion
engines. This is done by mixing hydrogen with air and igniting the mixture.
Hydrogen-powered internal combustion engines are similar to gasoline-powered
engines, but they emit no emissions.
(2)Green hydrogen can also be mixed with natural gas and
used as a fuel to generate heat or electricity. When mixed with natural gas,
hydrogen helps reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
(3)These clean energy cars have a hydrogen tank that
connects to a fuel cell, where the electricity that powers the engine is
generated. Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) represent a revolution in the
energy and transportation sector towards using fuels with a carbon-neutral
footprint.
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